JEE Main 2023 · 6 April · morning · Numerical answer · +4 / −0

Let y=y(x) be a solution of the differential equation (x cos x) d y+(x y sin x+y cos x-1) d x=0,0 < x < π/2. If π/3 y(π/3)=√3, then |π/6 y^(′ ′)(π/6)+2 y′(π/6)| is equal to ____________.

Answer and solution

Answer 2

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Spot that xy''+2y' is the second derivative of xy, so solve for xy and differentiate it twice.

  1. Linear form. Divide by x cos x dx to get dy/dx + (tan x + 1/x)y = 1/(x cos x). The integrating factor is e^(∫(tan x + 1/x) dx) = x/(cos x) = x sec x.
  2. Integrate. Multiplying through gives d/dx(xy sec x) = sec² x, so xy sec x = tan x + C. At x = π/3, sec x = 2 and xy = √3, so 2√3 = √3 + C and C = √3.

    xy = sin x + √3 cos x

  3. Differentiate twice. Once: y + xy' = cos x - √3 sin x. Again: xy'' + 2y' = -sin x - √3 cos x. That left side is exactly the expression in the question.
  4. So. At x = π/6: -1/2 - √3 × √3/2 = -1/2 - 3/2 = -2. Its absolute value is 2.

The common slip: -2. Dropping the modulus leaves -2; the question asks for the absolute value, which is 2.

The idea to keep. When a question asks for a combination like xy''+2y', check whether it is the derivative of something simple such as (xy)''. Then you never need y'' on its own.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Differential Equations

Asked about 200 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2023.