JEE Main 2022 · 29 July · morning · Single correct · +4 / −1
If 1/(20-a)(40-a)+1/(40-a)(60-a)+…+1/(180-a)(200-a)=1/256, then the maximum value of a is :
- (a) 198
- (b) 202
- (c) 212
- (d) 218
Answer and solution
Answer (c) 212
Solution
Maths sir · 4 steps
The factors always differ by 20, so split each term into two fractions and let the middle cancel.
- Split each term. In every term the two factors differ by 20. For example, (40-a)-(20-a)=20. So each term can be written as 1/uv=1/20(1/u-1/v).
- Telescope. When you add the terms, every middle fraction cancels. Only the first and the last fractions are left: 1/20(1/(20-a)-1/(200-a))=1/20·180/(20-a)(200-a)=9/(20-a)(200-a).
9/(20-a)(200-a)=1/256 ⇒ (20-a)(200-a)=2304
- Solve the quadratic. Expanding gives a²-220a+4000=2304, that is a²-220a+1696=0. The discriminant is 48400-6784=41616=204², so a=(220±204)/2=212 or 8.
- So. The larger root is a=212. Check: (20-212)(200-212)=(-192)(-12)=2304, and no factor in the sum becomes zero. The maximum value of a is 212, option (c).
The idea to keep. When each term is 1/uv with v-u=d fixed, write it as 1/d(1/u-1/v). Only the first and last pieces survive the sum.
Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.