JEE Main 2021 · 25 February · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1
If Iₙ = ∫_(π/4)^(π/2) cot ⁿx dx, then :
- (a) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in A.P.
- (b) I₂ + I₄, I₃ + I₅, I₄ + I₆ are in A.P.
- (c) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in G.P.
- (d) I₂ + I₄, (I₃ + I₅)², I₄ + I₆ are in G.P.
Answer and solution
Answer (a) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in A.P.
Solution
Maths sir · 3 steps
Pair Iₙ with Iₙ₊₂: then 1 + cot² x = csc² x turns the sum into one easy integral.
- Pair the terms. Add Iₙ and Iₙ₊₂ under one integral sign. The integrand becomes cotⁿ x (1 + cot² x) = cotⁿ x csc² x.
- Substitute t. Put t = cot x, so dt = -csc² x dx. When x = π/4, t = 1, and when x = π/2, t = 0. The minus sign flips the limits back to 0 to 1.
Iₙ + Iₙ₊₂ = ∫_(π/4)^(π/2) cotⁿ x csc² x dx = ∫₀¹ tⁿ dt = 1/(n+1)
Option The three terms Holds? (a) reciprocals in A.P. 3, 4, 5 yes, common difference 1 (b) sums in A.P. 1/3, 1/4, 1/5 no, these are in H.P. (c) reciprocals in G.P. 3, 4, 5 no, 4² ≠ 3 × 5 (d) G.P. with middle squared 1/3, 1/16, 1/5 no, 1/256 ≠ 1/15 - So. With n = 2, 3, 4 the sums are 1/3, 1/4, 1/5. Their reciprocals 3, 4, 5 are in A.P., so the answer is (a).
The idea to keep. For integrals of tanⁿ x or cotⁿ x, add Iₙ and Iₙ₊₂. The identity gives sec² or csc², which is exactly the derivative you need for the substitution.
Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.