JEE Main 2021 · 25 February · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1

If Iₙ = ∫_(π/4)^(π/2) cot ⁿx dx, then :

  1. (a) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in A.P.
  2. (b) I₂ + I₄, I₃ + I₅, I₄ + I₆ are in A.P.
  3. (c) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in G.P.
  4. (d) I₂ + I₄, (I₃ + I₅)², I₄ + I₆ are in G.P.
Answer and solution

Answer (a) 1/(I₂ + I₄),1/(I₃ + I₅),1/(I₄ + I₆) are in A.P.

Solution

Maths sir · 3 steps

Pair Iₙ with Iₙ₊₂: then 1 + cot² x = csc² x turns the sum into one easy integral.

  1. Pair the terms. Add Iₙ and Iₙ₊₂ under one integral sign. The integrand becomes cotⁿ x (1 + cot² x) = cotⁿ x csc² x.
  2. Substitute t. Put t = cot x, so dt = -csc² x dx. When x = π/4, t = 1, and when x = π/2, t = 0. The minus sign flips the limits back to 0 to 1.

    Iₙ + Iₙ₊₂ = ∫_(π/4)^(π/2) cotⁿ x csc² x dx = ∫₀¹ tⁿ dt = 1/(n+1)

    OptionThe three termsHolds?
    (a) reciprocals in A.P.3, 4, 5yes, common difference 1
    (b) sums in A.P.1/3, 1/4, 1/5no, these are in H.P.
    (c) reciprocals in G.P.3, 4, 5no, 4² ≠ 3 × 5
    (d) G.P. with middle squared1/3, 1/16, 1/5no, 1/256 ≠ 1/15
  3. So. With n = 2, 3, 4 the sums are 1/3, 1/4, 1/5. Their reciprocals 3, 4, 5 are in A.P., so the answer is (a).

The idea to keep. For integrals of tanⁿ x or cotⁿ x, add Iₙ and Iₙ₊₂. The identity gives sec² or csc², which is exactly the derivative you need for the substitution.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Definite Integration

Asked about 230 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2021.