JEE Main 2022 · 29 July · morning · Single correct · +4 / −1

The integral ∫₀^(π/2) 1/(3+2 sin x+cos x) d x is equal to :

  1. (a) tan ⁻¹(2)
  2. (b) tan ⁻¹(2)-π/4
  3. (c) 1/2 tan ⁻¹(2)-π/8
  4. (d) 1/2
Answer and solution

Answer (b) tan ⁻¹(2)-π/4

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Sine and cosine together in the denominator? Put t = tan x/2 and it becomes a plain quadratic.

  1. Substitute. Let t = tan x/2. Then sin x = 2t/(1+t²), cos x = (1-t²)/(1+t²) and dx = (2 dt)/(1+t²). The limits x = 0 and x = π/2 become t = 0 and t = 1.
  2. Clean the denominator. Multiply the denominator by 1+t²: 3(1+t²) + 4t + 1 - t² = 2t² + 4t + 4. The 1+t² from dx cancels, and so does the factor 2.

    ∫₀¹ (2 dt)/(2t²+4t+4) = ∫₀¹ dt/((t+1)²+1)

  3. Integrate. This is the standard form, so the integral is [tan⁻¹(t+1)]₀¹ = tan⁻¹(2) - tan⁻¹(1).
  4. So. Since tan⁻¹(1) = π/4, the integral equals tan⁻¹(2) - π/4, which is option (b).

The idea to keep. For ∫ dx/(a + b sin x + c cos x), use t = tan x/2, then complete the square. Always change the limits along with the variable.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Definite Integration

Asked about 230 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2022.