JEE Main 2025 · 3 April · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1

The integral ∫₀^π (8 x d x)/(4 cos ² x+sin ² x) is equal to

  1. (a) 2 π²
  2. (b) 4 π²
  3. (c) π²
  4. (d) (3 π²)/2
Answer and solution

Answer (a) 2 π²

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

An x on top with a denominator symmetric about π/2? Replace x by π − x and the x disappears.

  1. Use the King property. Replace x by π - x. Since cos²(π - x) = cos² x and sin²(π - x) = sin² x, the denominator does not change, so I = ∫₀^π 8(π - x)/(4 cos² x + sin² x) dx.
  2. Add the two forms. Adding this to the original gives 2I = 8π ∫₀^π dx/(4 cos² x + sin² x). The integrand repeats symmetrically about π/2, so ∫₀^π = 2∫₀^(π/2), and I = 8π ∫₀^(π/2) dx/(4 cos² x + sin² x).
  3. Divide by cos squared. Divide top and bottom by cos² x and put t = tan x, so dt = sec² x dx. As x goes from 0 to π/2, t goes from 0 to ∞.

    ∫₀^(π/2) (sec² x dx)/(4 + tan² x) = ∫₀^∞ dt/(4 + t²) = [1/2 tan⁻¹ t/2]₀^∞ = π/4

  4. So. I = 8π × π/4 = 2π², which is option (a).

The idea to keep. When x multiplies a function that is unchanged under x → a + b − x, add the two forms of I. The x drops out and you only integrate the plain function.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Definite Integration

Asked about 230 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2025.