JEE Main 2025 · 3 April · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1
The integral ∫₀^π (8 x d x)/(4 cos ² x+sin ² x) is equal to
- (a) 2 π²
- (b) 4 π²
- (c) π²
- (d) (3 π²)/2
Answer and solution
Answer (a) 2 π²
Solution
Maths sir · 4 steps
An x on top with a denominator symmetric about π/2? Replace x by π − x and the x disappears.
- Use the King property. Replace x by π - x. Since cos²(π - x) = cos² x and sin²(π - x) = sin² x, the denominator does not change, so I = ∫₀^π 8(π - x)/(4 cos² x + sin² x) dx.
- Add the two forms. Adding this to the original gives 2I = 8π ∫₀^π dx/(4 cos² x + sin² x). The integrand repeats symmetrically about π/2, so ∫₀^π = 2∫₀^(π/2), and I = 8π ∫₀^(π/2) dx/(4 cos² x + sin² x).
- Divide by cos squared. Divide top and bottom by cos² x and put t = tan x, so dt = sec² x dx. As x goes from 0 to π/2, t goes from 0 to ∞.
∫₀^(π/2) (sec² x dx)/(4 + tan² x) = ∫₀^∞ dt/(4 + t²) = [1/2 tan⁻¹ t/2]₀^∞ = π/4
- So. I = 8π × π/4 = 2π², which is option (a).
The idea to keep. When x multiplies a function that is unchanged under x → a + b − x, add the two forms of I. The x drops out and you only integrate the plain function.
Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.