JEE Main 2024 · 27 January · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1
For 0 < a < 1, the value of the integral ∫0^π (d x)/(1-2 a cos x+a²) is :
- (a) π²/(π+a²)
- (b) π²/(π-a²)
- (c) π/(1-a²)
- (d) π/(1+a²)
Answer and solution
Answer (c) π/(1-a²)
Solution
Maths sir · 4 steps
Whenever you see a + b cos x in the denominator, put t = tan x/2 and it becomes a standard arctan.
- Half-angle substitution. Let t = tan x/2, so cos x = (1-t²)/(1+t²) and dx = (2 dt)/(1+t²). As x goes from 0 to π, t goes from 0 to ∞.
- Clean the denominator. Multiply the denominator by 1+t²: (1+a²)(1+t²) - 2a(1-t²) = (1-a)² + (1+a)² t². The factor 1+t² cancels with the one in dx.
I = ∫₀^∞ (2 dt)/((1-a)² + (1+a)² t²) = 2/(1+a)(1-a)[tan⁻¹(1+a)t/(1-a)]₀^∞
- Evaluate the limits. Since 0 < a < 1, the factor (1+a)/(1-a) is positive, so the arctan runs from 0 to π/2. That gives I = 2/(1-a²) × π/2.
- So. I = π/(1-a²), which is option (c). As a check, when a → 1 the integrand blows up near x = 0, and only this option blows up too.
The idea to keep. For ∫ dx/(p + q cos x), use t = tan x/2: the denominator turns into a quadratic in t and the answer is an arctan. Always convert the limits along with the variable.
Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.