JEE Main 2025 · 8 April · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1

The value of cot⁻¹ ( (√(1 + tan²(2)) - 1)/tan(2) ) - cot⁻¹ ( (√(1 + tan²(1/2)) + 1)/tan(1/2) ) is equal to

  1. (a) π - 3/2
  2. (b) π + 5/2
  3. (c) π - 5/4
  4. (d) π + 3/2
Answer and solution

Answer (c) π - 5/4

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Turn each fraction into a half-angle cotangent, but check the sign of cos 2 before you take the root.

  1. Half-angle form. Here √(1+tan² x) = |sec x|, not just sec x, so the sign of cos x matters. Once the root is opened, multiply top and bottom by cos x and use the half-angle identity below.

    (1+cos x)/(sin x) = (2 cos² x/2)/(2 sin x/2 cos x/2) = cot x/2

  2. First term. The angle 2 rad lies between π/2 ≈ 1.57 and π ≈ 3.14, so cos 2 < 0 and |sec 2| = -sec 2. The fraction becomes (-sec 2 - 1)/(tan 2) = -(1+cos 2)/(sin 2) = -cot 1. So the term is cot⁻¹(-cot 1) = π - cot⁻¹(cot 1) = π - 1, because 1 lies in (0, π).
  3. Second term. Here cos 1/2 > 0, so the root is sec 1/2. The fraction is (1+cos 1/2)/(sin 1/2) = cot 1/4. Since 1/4 lies in (0, π), the term is 1/4.
  4. So. The value is (π - 1) - 1/4 = π - 5/4, which is option (c).

The idea to keep. √(1+tan² x) is |sec x|. Find the quadrant of the angle first, then use cot⁻¹(-y) = π - cot⁻¹ y to bring the answer into (0, π).

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Asked about 90 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2025.