JEE Main 2025 · 2 April · evening · Numerical answer · +4 / −1

If y=cos (π/3+cos ⁻¹ x/2) , then (x-y)²+3 y² is equal to

Answer and solution

Answer 3

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Call the inverse cosine an angle, expand with the compound-angle formula, then square away the root.

  1. Name the angle. Let θ = cos⁻¹ x/2, so cos θ = x/2 with θ ∈ [0, π]. On this range sin θ ≥ 0, so sin θ = √(4 - x²)/2.
  2. Expand the cosine. Use cos(A + B) = cos A cos B - sin A sin B with cos π/3 = 1/2 and sin π/3 = √3/2. This gives y = x/4 - √3/4√(4 - x²), so x - 4y = √3 √(4 - x²).

    (x - 4y)² = 3(4 - x²)

  3. Simplify. Expanding gives x² - 8xy + 16y² = 12 - 3x², that is 4x² - 8xy + 16y² = 12. Divide by 4 to get x² - 2xy + 4y² = 3.
  4. So. x² - 2xy + 4y² = (x - y)² + 3y², so (x - y)² + 3y² = 3.

The common slip: 12. Stopping at 4x² - 8xy + 16y² = 12 and reading off the constant gives 12. Divide by 4 first so the left side matches (x - y)² + 3y².

The idea to keep. When an inverse trig term sits inside a trig function, call it θ, write sin θ and cos θ in terms of x, expand, then isolate the square root and square it.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Asked about 90 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2025.