JEE Main 2025 · 24 January · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1

If α>β>γ>0, then the expression cot ⁻¹{β+(1+β²)/(α-β)}+cot ⁻¹{γ+(1+γ²)/(β-γ)}+cot ⁻¹{α+(1+α²)/(γ-α)} is equal to :

  1. (a) 3 π
  2. (b) π/2-(α+β+γ)
  3. (c) π
  4. (d) 0
Answer and solution

Answer (c) π

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Turn each term into a difference of tan⁻¹, but the third argument is negative, so add π.

  1. One fraction. In the first bracket, β + (1+β²)/(α-β) = (αβ - β² + 1 + β²)/(α-β) = (1+αβ)/(α-β). In the same way the second is (1+βγ)/(β-γ) and the third is (1+γα)/(γ-α).
  2. Positive arguments. Since α>β>γ>0, the first two fractions are positive. For x>0, cot⁻¹ x = tan⁻¹ 1/x, so the first term is tan⁻¹(α-β)/(1+αβ) = tan⁻¹ α - tan⁻¹ β. The second is tan⁻¹ β - tan⁻¹ γ.
  3. Negative argument. The third fraction is negative because γ<α. For x<0, cot⁻¹ x lies in (π/2, π), so cot⁻¹ x = π + tan⁻¹ 1/x. That makes the third term π + tan⁻¹ γ - tan⁻¹ α.

    (tan⁻¹ α - tan⁻¹ β) + (tan⁻¹ β - tan⁻¹ γ) + (π + tan⁻¹ γ - tan⁻¹ α) = π

  4. So. All the tan⁻¹ terms cancel in pairs and only π is left. The expression equals π, option (c).

The idea to keep. cot⁻¹ x = tan⁻¹ 1/x only when x>0. For x<0 add π, because cot⁻¹ always lives in (0, π). Always check the sign of the argument first.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Asked about 90 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2025.