JEE Main 2023 · 10 April · evening · Single correct · +4 / −1

Let g(x)=f(x)+f(1-x) and f^(′ ′)(x) > 0, x ∈(0,1). If g is decreasing in the interval (0, a) and increasing in the interval (α, 1), then tan ⁻¹(2 α)+tan ⁻¹(1/α)+tan ⁻¹((α+1)/α) is equal to :

  1. (a) (3 π)/4
  2. (b) π
  3. (c) (5 π)/4
  4. (d) (3 π)/2
Answer and solution

Answer (b) π

Solution

Maths sir · 4 steps

Since f' is increasing, g' changes sign exactly where x = 1-x, so α = 1/2.

  1. Differentiate g. g'(x) = f'(x) - f'(1-x). Because f''(x) > 0 on (0,1), f' is an increasing function there.
  2. Sign of g′. For x < 1/2 we have x < 1-x, so f'(x) < f'(1-x) and g'(x) < 0. For x > 1/2 the inequality flips and g'(x) > 0. So g decreases on (0, 1/2) and increases on (1/2, 1), which gives α = 1/2.
  3. Substitute alpha. With α = 1/2: 2α = 1, 1/α = 2 and (α+1)/α = 3. The expression becomes tan⁻¹ 1 + tan⁻¹ 2 + tan⁻¹ 3. Here 2 × 3 = 6 > 1 with both numbers positive, so the sum formula needs an extra π.

    tan⁻¹ 2 + tan⁻¹ 3 = π + tan⁻¹((2+3)/(1-2 × 3)) = π + tan⁻¹(-1) = 3π/4

  4. So. The total is π/4 + 3π/4 = π, which is option (b).

The idea to keep. For f(x)+f(1-x) with f''>0, symmetry puts the minimum at x=1/2. When adding tan⁻¹ a+tan⁻¹ b with a,b>0 and ab>1, remember to add π.

Answer from the NTA final answer key. Solution by PrepWiser.

Study Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Asked about 90 times in JEE Main since 2020. This question is from 2023.